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January 2025
1/11/2025
"in the Lord" in Romans 16:22 (Part 2)
In most English translations of Romans 16:22, "in the Lord" modifies the verb "I greet you," meaning Tertius is greeting the Roman Christians with the peace and unity that comes through their shared faith in Jesus Christ.
I believe, however, that it is more probable that it modifies "who wrote the letter," depending on the emphasis you want to place on the context. Let's explore this possibility in more detail.
Here's the interpretative issue:
"I, Tertius, who wrote down this letter, greet you in the Lord."
Or,
"I, Tertius, who wrote down this letter in the Lord, greet you."
In the vast majority of translations and interpretations, "in the Lord" modifies "greet you." For most it is the straightforward reading, meaning that Tertius is sending the greeting in the context of Christian fellowship, recognizing the shared bond between him and the Roman Christians through their faith in Christ.
This understanding fits with the typical New Testament usage of the phrase "in the Lord", which often signals actions or relationships that are grounded in the Christian faith. In this case, the greeting is not merely formal, but is spiritual, reflecting the unity of believers "in the Lord."
Here are some examples of "in the Lord" in the rest of the New Testament:
(1) The presence of "in the Lord" with "believe" (or believer): Acts 5:14; 9:42; 11:17; 16:31; 18:8. Compare those with Rom. 14:14: "I know and am convinced in the Lord Jesus."
(2) Rom. 16:2: "receive her in the Lord."
(3) Rom. 16:8, which is very important given its close proximity to the interpretive issue in question: "Greet Ampliatus, my beloved in the Lord."
(4) Likewise, Rom. 16:11: "Greet those of the household of Narcissus, who are in the Lord" (in Greek τοὺς ὄντας ἐν κυρίῳ).
(5) But pay very close attention to Rom. 16:12: "Greet Tryphaena and Tryphosa, workers in the Lord."
Why isn't it translated there as "Greet in the Lord Tryphaena and Tryphosa, the workers"?
(6) And Rom. 16:13: "Greet Rufus, a choice man in the Lord, also his mother and mine."
Other examples involving "greet" include 1 Cor. 16:19;
Other examples involving letter postscripts: Eph. 6:21; Col. 4:7; 4:17; Philem. 20
(7) See also 1 Cor. 1:31; 4:17; 7:22; 7:39; 9:1; 9:2; 11:11; 15:58; 2 Cor. 2:12; 10:17; Gal. 5:10; Eph. 1:15; 2:21; 5:8; 6:1; 6:10; Phil. 1:14; 2:19; 2:24; 2:29; 3:1; 4:1; 4:2; 4:4; 4:10; Col. 3:18; 1 Thess. 3:8; 4:1; 5:12; 2 Thess. 3:4; 3:12; Philem. 16; Rev. 14:13.
If "in the Lord" modifies "who wrote the letter", the phrase would imply that Tertius is specifically stating that he is writing the letter in the Lord—that is, under the influence or direction of the Lord. This interpretation could suggest that Tertius is acknowledging that his act of writing the letter is not just a mechanical task, but is done with a spiritual purpose and in obedience to God, or highlighting the idea that the act of transcribing or recording Paul's words was done in the service of Christ. But it could mean something else. It could mean that Tertius was acknowledging his awareness of divine inspiration, what Paul describes in 2 Timothy 3:16 with the Greek expression πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος.
From a grammatical perspective, this interpretation might seem less common, as "in the Lord" is much more typically understood as modifying the verb "greet", which is an action Tertius is taking in relation to the Roman Christians. But is the phrase disjointed if it were intended to modify "who wrote the letter"? This interpretation has stronger contextual support. Go and compare the uses of "in the Lord" with other uses of "greet" even in Romans 16. And then ask yourself the following question: Is it more likely that Paul intended ἐν κυρίῳ to modify ἀσπάζομαι or ὁ γράψας τὴν ἐπιστολήν? While it is possible that he brackets the self-identification clause with the greeting clause, the immediate referent is "the one who wrote the letter down." The natural reading is to understand it that way, and it also parallels other uses in Romans 16.
1/1/2025
"in the Lord" in Romans 16:22 (Part 1)
What does that prepositional phrase modify in Romans 16:22? —ἀσπάζομαι ὑμᾶς OR ὁ γράψας τὴν ἐπιστολήν? Almost every modern translation in English has it modifying the former, even though its immediate referent in the Greek text is the latter. What’s the difference between “I greet you in the Lord” and “The one who wrote the letter in the Lord”? Does it matter? You bet it does! Click here. @NTPhilology